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BEST Verified ASCP ASCP-MLT Exam Questions (2023)
NEW QUESTION 110
Calcium oxalates can be found in normal urine in varying pH levels. Ammonium biurate and triple phosphate can be found in normal alkaline urine. Leucine crystals are always abnormal, and can be found in maple syrup urine disease.
Which one of the following crystals is NOT found in normal urine?
- A. Ammonium biurate
- B. Leucine
- C. Triple phosphate
- D. Calcium oxalate
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 111
Eosinophils do not have cytoplasm containing large purple/blue-staining granules. Instead, their granules are large but are orange/red in color. These granules are very distinctive for this type of cell, typically making their identification simple.
ll of the following statements describe an eosinophil EXCEPT:
- A. May be called an "eo"
- B. Is a member of the granulocyte series
- C. Cytoplasm contains large purple/blue-staining granules.
- D. Cytoplasm contains large reddish-orange granules.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 112
The personal protective equipment (PPE) that is used in the laboratory to protect the personnel when performing tests on patient blood samples is which of the following:
- A. A and B only
- B. Goggles and mask
- C. Coat or gown
- D. Gloves
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 113
MCH is the average weight of hemoglobin in the average red blood cell. The value is expressed in picograms (10-12 grams).
Hematology
Hemoglobin (g/100ml) x 10 / RBC count (millions/mm3) is the formula for calculating:
- A. MCH
- B. MCV
- C. RDW
- D. MCHC
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 114
The conidia of Exophiala species are produced within phialides that extrude the conidia in tight, ball-like clusters.
The large, drum stick-shaped muriform macroconidia of Alternaria species are arranged in short chains; the small, elliptical conidia of Cladosporium species are arranged in both long and short, branching chains.
Which of the following dematiaceous fungal species produce conidia in clusters?
- A. Cladosporium species
- B. Alternaria species
- C. Exophiala species
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 115
HLA-DR is a class II MHC.
HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C are all class I MHC.
Which of the following antigens is classified as a Major Histocompatibility Complex Class II antigen (MHCII)?
- A. HLA-DR
- B. HLA-A
- C. HLA-C
- D. HLA-B
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 116
Pluripotential stem cells are ultimately capable of differentiating into all types of leukocytes.
Hematology
Pluripotential stem cells are capable of producing which of the following:
- A. Only T-lymphocyte and B-lymphocyte subsets
- B. Erythropoietin, thrombopoietin and leukopoietin
- C. Daughter cells from only a single cell line
- D. Lymphoid and myeloid stem cells
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 117
The mandatory waiting period between blood donations is 56 days, or eight weeks.
The accepted interval between blood donations is:
- A. Depends on hematocrit level
- B. 8 weeks
- C. 12 weeks
- D. 6 weeks
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 118
Unconjugated bilirubin is a byproduct of RBC breakdown, or hemolysis. It would be expected to see an increase in unconjugated bilirubin when hemolysis is occuring at an increased rate. The liver enzymes would not remain at normal levels if there were a viral infection of the liver, chemical damage to the liver, or obstruction of bile ducts.
Chemistry
A patient presents with an elevation of unconjugated bilirubin, normal serum alkaline phosphatase, normal liver enzymes, and no bilirubin in the urine. This combination would suggest:
- A. Chemical damage to the liver.
- B. Obstruction of common bile duct
- C. Increased rate of hemolysis
- D. Viral infection of the liver.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 119
Class C fires involve:
Question options:
- A. grease or oil
- B. flammable materials
- C. wood
- D. electrical equipment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 120
Intravascular hemolysis is typically associated with increased levels of serum (plasma) LDH and bilirubin, and an increased number of reticulocytes. Serum LDH is found in higher levels during intravascular hemolysis due to fact that high levels of LDH are normally found within the red cells, but is now being spilled into the bloodstream via red cell lysis. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin, which has also been spilled into the bloodstream from broken red blood cells via hemolysis. Reticulocytosis is a reflection of the release of an increased number of immature red blood cells from the marrow to account for the red blood cells that are lost through hemolysis. This is a normal response. Failure to show an increased reticulocyte count with hemolytic episodes or hemorrhage would indicate an ineffective erythropoiesis (possible bone marrow function problem).
Which of these blood levels will increase during intravascular hemolysis?
- A. None of the above
- B. Reticulocytes
- C. All of the above
- D. Serum (plasma) bilirubin
- E. Serum (plasma) LDH
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 121
The end of the initial phase of HH treatment is considered when the serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and
50 ng/mL.
What is a typical finding for determining the endpoint for the initial or iron-depletion phase of treatment for hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)?
- A. The transferrin saturation drops below 20%
- B. The serum iron falls to below 35 g/dL.
- C. The hepatic iron index returns to normal
- D. The serum ferritin decreases to between 20 and 50 ng/mL
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 122
Which of the following could reduce the risk of a patient becoming infected with a hospital acquired infection?
- A. Chemotherapy
- B. Proper handwashing procedure
- C. Pre-surgical testing
- D. Antibiotic therapy
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 123
The laboratory employee with an 2-year associate degree who performs clinical testing is the:
- A. medical laboratory technician.
- B. clinical laboratory scientist.
- C. medical technologist.
- D. phlebotomist.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 124
True Statements:
Urine should be well mixed prior to dipping the reagent strip. Prolonged immersion may wash out test reagents.
False Statements:
Urine should be centrifuged prior to dipping the reagent strip. When visually reading the reagent strip, all results can be read immediately after dipping the strip in the urine specimen.
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the reagent strip test procedure? (Choose ALL of the correct answers)
- A. When visually reading the reagent strip, all results can be read immediately after dipping the strip in the urine specimen.
- B. Urine should be centrifuged prior to dipping the reagent strip.
- C. Prolonged immersion may wash out test reagents.
- D. Urine should be well mixed prior to dipping the reagent strip.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION 125
The parents will each give one of their ABO genes, so the possibilities are as follows:
AB, AO, AB, AO = 50% chance of A blood type, 50% chance of AB blood type Blood Bank If parents have the blood group genotypes AA and BO, what is the possibility of having a child with a blood type of A?
- A. 25%
- B. 75%
- C. none of them
- D. 100%
- E. 50%
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION 126
Ammonium biurate crystalsare typically round, irregularly spiked and yellow-brown in color.
A microscopic examination of a normal urine pH 8.0 shows 2+ yellow-brown thorny spheres which are MOST probably:
- A. amorphous urate crystals
- B. ammonium biurate crystals
- C. waxy casts
- D. ampicillin crystals
- E. crenated red cells
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 127
Alkaline phosphatase, or ALP, is present in kidneys, liver, intestines, bone, and the placenta. The liver makes the largest amount of ALP. Some of the conditions associated with increased levels of ALP include: damaged liver cells, rapid bone growth (during puberty), bone diseases, or a disease that affects how much calcium is in the blood (hyperparathyroidism), and vitamin D deficiency.
Chemistry
Isoenzymes of alkaline phosphatase occur in:
- A. Liver, brain, spleen, intestines
- B. Bone, brain, liver, pancreas
- C. Brain, kidney, intestines, bone
- D. Kidney, bone, intestines, liver
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 128
Root cause analysis (RCA) is a structured study that determines the underlying causes of adverse events. RCA focuses on systems, processes, and common causes that were involved in the adverse event. It then determines ways to prevent recurrence by identifying potential improvements in systems and processes that should decrease the likelihood of repeating the event.
Failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA) is used to evaluate a process prior to its implementation. Its purpose is to identify ways in which a process might possibly fail with the goal being to eliminate or reduce the likelihood of such a failure.
Monitoring quality indicators is important in the maintenance of quality health care. Quality indicators should be identified to prevent medical errors from occurring or to prevent the recurrence of a quality issue. However, it is not the method that is used to evaluate an adverse event after it has occurred.
A medical record audit may be a part of a root cause analysis.
A medical event occurs that results in serious injury to a patient. All systems, processes, and common causes that were involved in the adverse event should be evaluated. A method that can be implemented to effectively study the underlying causes is known as:
- A. Monitoring of quality indicators
- B. Failure mode and effect analysis
- C. Root cause analysis
- D. Medical record audit
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 129
High triglycerides may be caused by disorders such as type 2 diabetes, hypothyroidism, Cushing's sydnrome, liver disease, uremia, dysglobulinemia, nephrotic syndrome, and alcoholism can cause hypertriglyceridemia.
A 46-year old known alcoholic with liver damage is brought in the ER unconscious. One would expect his lipid values to be affected in what way?
- A. Increased
- B. Unaffected by the alcoholism
- C. Normal
- D. Decreased
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 130
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