Dumps for Free Juniper JN0-335 Practice Exam Questions [Dec 06, 2023]
JN0-335 Dumps PDF And Certification Training
The JN0-335 certification exam is a valuable credential for security professionals looking to advance their careers. Holding this certification demonstrates to employers that the candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to configure and manage Juniper Networks security products. Additionally, the certification is recognized globally, making it a valuable credential for security professionals looking to work internationally.
Juniper JN0-335 certification exam is considered one of the most challenging and respected certifications in the field of network security. It is designed to validate the knowledge and skills of professionals who work with Juniper Networks security technologies. By passing JN0-335 exam, candidates can demonstrate their ability to implement and maintain Juniper Networks security solutions and can enhance their career prospects in the field of network security.
The JN0-335 certification exam covers a wide range of topics, including Junos Security Architecture, Security Policies, Symmetric and Asymmetric Encryption, Next-Generation Security Services, Junos Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs, and Junos IPSec VPNs. JN0-335 exam aims to test the candidate's understanding of Juniper Networks security products and their ability to configure and manage these products effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 24
Which method does the loT Security feature use to identify traffic sourced from IoT devices?
- A. The SRX Series device streams metadata from the loT device transit traffic to Juniper ATP Cloud Juniper ATP Cloud.
- B. The SRX Series device streams transit traffic received from the IoT device to Juniper ATP Cloud.
- C. The SRX Series device identifies loT devices using their MAC address.
- D. The SRX Series device identifies loT devices from metadata extracted from their transit traffic.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The metadata is used to identify the type of device, its associated activities and its threat profile.
This information is used to determine the appropriate security policy for the device.
NEW QUESTION # 25
What are three valid actions for a then statement in a security policy? (Choose three.)
- A. permit
- B. discard
- C. reject
- D. accept
- E. deny
Answer: A,C,E
NEW QUESTION # 26
A client has attempted communication with a known command-and-control server and it has reached the configured threat level threshold.
Which feed will the clients IP address be automatically added to in this situation?
- A. the infected host cloud feed
- B. the allowlist and blocklist feed
- C. the command-and-control cloud feed
- D. the custom cloud feed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Infected hosts are internal hosts that have been compromised by malware and are communicating with external C&C servers. Juniper ATP Cloud provides infected host feeds that list internal IP addresses or subnets of infected hosts along with a threat level. Once the Juniper ATP Cloud global threshold for an infected host is met, that host is added to the infected host feed and assigned a threat level of 10 by the cloud. You can also configure your SRX Series device to block traffic from these IP addresses using security policies.
NEW QUESTION # 27
A routing change occurs on an SRX Series device that involves choosing a new egress interface.
In this scenario, which statement is true for all affected current sessions?
- A. The current sessions might change based on the corresponding security policy.
- B. The current session are torn dowm only if the policy-rematch option has been enabled.
- C. The current sessions do not change.
- D. The current sessions are torn down and go through first path processing based on the new route.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 28
You are asked to block malicious applications regardless of the port number being used. In this scenario, which two application security features should be used? (Choose two.)
- A. AppQoE
- B. APPID
- C. AppTrack
- D. AppFW
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
You can block applications and users based on network access policies, users and their job roles, time, and application signatures. You can also use Juniper Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) to find and block commodity and zero-day cyberthreats within files, IP traffic, and DNS requests.
NEW QUESTION # 29
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
- A. IDP ignores the connection on matched sessions.
- B. IDP closes the connection on matched sessions.
- C. IDP blocks all users.
- D. IDP blocks root users.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 30
You have deployed JSA and you need to view events and network activity that match rule criteria. You must view this data using a single interface.
Which JSA feature should you use in this scenario?
- A. Offense Manager
- B. Network Activity
- C. Assets
- D. Log Collector
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 31
Exhibit
You are asked to ensure that servers running the Ubuntu OS will not be able to update automatically by blocking their access at the SRX firewall. You have configured a unified security policy named Blockuburrtu, but it is not blocking the updates to the OS.
Referring to the exhibit which statement will block the Ubuntu OS updates?
- A. Move the Blockubuntu policy after the Allowweb policy.
- B. Configure the Allowweb policy to have a dynamic application of any.
- C. Configure the Blockubuntu policy with the junos-https application parameter.
- D. Change the default policy to permit-all.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which statement about the control link in a chassis cluster is correct?
- A. A cluster can have redundant control links.
- B. The control link heartbeats contain the configuration file of the nodes.
- C. The control messages sent over the link are encrypted by default.
- D. Recovering from a control link failure requires a reboot.
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/security-chassis-cluster- dual-control-links.html
NEW QUESTION # 33
You want to support reth LAG interfaces on a chassis cluster. What must be enabled on the interconnecting switch to accomplish this task?
- A. LLDP
- B. 802.3ad
- C. swfab
- D. RSTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos/topics/topic-map/security-chassis-cluster- redundant-ethernet-lag-interfaces.html
NEW QUESTION # 34
You have just configured source NAT with a pool of addresses within the same subnet as the egress interface. What else must be configured to make the addresses in the pool usable?
- A. address persistence
- B. destination NAT
- C. static NAT
- D. proxy ARP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 35
You need to have the JATP solution analyzer .jar, .xls, and .doc files.
Referring to the exhibit, which two file types must be selected to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
- A. Java
- B. executable
- C. document
- D. library
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 36
The AppQoE module of AppSecure provides which function?
- A. The AppQoE module provides routing, based on network conditions.
- B. The AppQoE module provides application-based routing.
- C. The AppQoE module prioritizes important applications.
- D. The AppQoE module blocks access to risky applications.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which solution enables you to create security policies that include user and group information?
- A. JIMS
- B. Network Director
- C. ATP Appliance
- D. NETCONF
Answer: A
Explanation:
The solution that enables you to create security policies that include user and group information is JIMS (Juniper Identity Management Service). JIMS collects and maintains a large database of user, device, and group information from Active Directory domains or syslog sources, and enables SRX Series devices to rapidly identify thousands of users in a large, distributed enterprise. With JIMS, you can create security policies that include user and group information, and enforce user-based access control policies to protect network resources.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
- A. Malicious HTTP file downloads are always blocked.
- B. Hosts are always able to communicate through the SRX Series device no matter the threat score assigned to them on the infected host feed.
- C. Malicious HTTP file downloads are never blocked.
- D. Hosts are unable to communicate through the SRX Series device after being placed on the infected host feed with a high enough threat score.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which two statements are true about Juniper ATP Cloud? (Choose two.)
- A. Dynamic analysis is not always necessary to determine if a file contains malware.
- B. If the cache lookup determines that a file contains malware, static analysis is not performed to verify the results.
- C. If the cache lookup determines that a file contains malware, performed to verify the results.
- D. Dynamic analysis is always performed to determine if a file contains malware.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis is not always necessary to determine if a file contains malware, as the ATP Cloud uses a cache lookup to quickly identify known malicious files. If the cache lookup determines that a file contains malware, static analysis is not performed to verify the results.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which two statements describe superflows in Juniper Secure Analytics? (Choose two.)
- A. JSA only supports Type A and Type C superflows.
- B. Superflows can negatively impact licensing limitations.
- C. Disk space usage is reduced on the JSA device.
- D. Superflows combine many flows into a single flow.
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 41
Referring to the exhibit, you want to deploy Sky ATP with Policy Enforcer to block infected hosts at the access layer.
To complete this task, where should you configure the default gateway for the User-1 device?
- A. the interface on SRX-1 that connects to QFX-2
- B. the irb interface on QFX-2
- C. the irb interface on QFX-1
- D. the interface of QFX-1 that connects to User-1
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 42
You enable chassis clustering on two devices and assign a cluster ID and a node ID to each device. In this scenario, what is the correct order for rebooting the devices?
- A. Reboot the secondary device, then the primary device.
- B. Reboot the primary device, then the secondary device.
- C. Reboot only the primary device since the secondary will assign itself the correct cluster and node ID.
- D. Reboot only the secondary device since the primary will assign itself the correct cluster and node ID.
Answer: B
Explanation:
when enabling chassis clustering on two devices, the correct order for rebooting them is to reboot the primary device first, followed by the secondary device. It is not possible for either device to assign itself the correct cluster and node ID, so both devices must be rebooted to ensure the proper configuration is applied.
NEW QUESTION # 43
You are deploying a vSRX into a vSphere environment which applies the configuration from a bootable ISO file containing the juniper.conf file. After the vSRX boots and has the configuration applied, you make additional device specific configuration changes, commit, and reboot the device. Once the device finishes rebooting, you notice the specific changes you made are missing but the original configuration is applied.
In this scenario, what is the problem?
- A. Configuration changes do not persist after reboots on vSRX.
- B. The configuration file is corrupt.
- C. The ISO file is still mounted on the vSRX.
- D. The juniper.conf file was not applied to the vSRX.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which two devices would you use for DDoS protection with Policy Enforcer? (Choose two.)
- A. vQFX
- B. QFX
- C. MX
- D. vMX
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
The MX and vMX devices can be used for DDoS protection with Policy Enforcer. Policy Enforcer is a Juniper Networks solution that provides real-time protection from DDoS attacks. It can be used to detect and block malicious traffic, and also provides granular control over user access and policy enforcement. The MX and vMX devices are well-suited for use with Policy Enforcer due to their high-performance hardware and advanced security features.
NEW QUESTION # 45
You are asked to enable AppTrack to monitor application traffic from hosts in the User zone destined to hosts in the Internet zone.
In this scenario, which statement is true?
- A. You must enable the AppTrack feature within the User zone configuration.
- B. You must enable the AppTrack feature within the interface configuration associated with the User zone.
- C. You must enable the AppTrack feature within the ingress interface configuration associated with the Internet zone.
- D. You must enable the AppTrack feature within the Internet zone configuration.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 46
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