Practice on 2025 LATEST CCSK Exam Updated 179 Questions
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The CCSK Certification Exam is based on the CSA's Cloud Security Guidance v4.0 and covers a wide range of topics related to cloud security, including data security, compliance, and governance. CCSK exam is available online and can be taken from anywhere in the world. It consists of 60 multiple-choice questions and must be completed within 90 minutes. To pass the exam, individuals must score 80% or higher.
Preparing for the CCSK certification exam requires a solid understanding of cloud security concepts and best practices. Candidates can use various study resources, including online courses, study guides, practice exams, and training programs. The CCSK certification exam is an excellent way for IT professionals to showcase their cloud security expertise and advance their careers in the rapidly growing field of cloud computing.
The CCSK Certification Exam is currently in its fourth version, known as CCSK v4.0. This latest version reflects the most up-to-date industry best practices, and covers a wide range of topics related to cloud security, including cloud architecture, data security, compliance, and risk management. CCSK exam is intended to be vendor-neutral, meaning that it does not focus on any specific cloud platform or technology, but rather on general principles of cloud security.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?
- A. The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.
- B. The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.
- C. Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.
- D. Object-based storage in a private cloud.
- E. The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 23
The example of two administrators required to complete an operation in cloud is an example of:
- A. Mandy
- B. Separy
- C. Collaborative effons
- D. Conflict of interest
Answer: B
Explanation:
Separation of duties(SoD)(also known as "Segregation of duties") is the concept of having more than one person required to complete a task. ln business the separation by sharing of more than one individual in one single task is an internal control intended to prevent fraud and error.
NEW QUESTION # 24
What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be interconnected?
- A. Intersection
- B. Coalition
- C. Union
- D. Cloud
- E. Federation
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 25
Erin has a picture which he wants to store in the cloud and would like to share its URL so that his friends can see the picture. What type of cloud storage would you recommend for him?
- A. Block Storage
- B. Raw storage
- C. Glacier
- D. Object Storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Object storage(also referred to as object-based storage) is a general term that refers to the way in which we organize and work with units of storage, called objects.
Every object contains three things:
The data itself: The data can be anything you want to store, from a family photo to a400,000-page manual for assembling an aircraft.
An expandable amount of metadata: The metadata is defined by whoever creates the object storage; it contains contextual information about what the data is, what it should be used for, its confidentiality, or anything else that is relevant to the way in which the data is used.
A globally unique identifier: The identifier is an address given to the object in order for the object to be found over a distributed system. This way, it's possible to find the data without having to know the physical location of the data(which could exist within different parts of a data center or different parts of the world).
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?
- A. Firewalls
- B. Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)
- C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
- D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
Answer: B
Explanation:
An SDP creates a "dark" network, visible only to authorized users, enhancing security by hiding infrastructure from potential attackers. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 7 - Infrastructure & Networking]
NEW QUESTION # 27
Containers are highly portable code execution environments.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 28
What is true of searching data across cloud environments?
- A. All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.
- B. Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.
- C. You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.
- D. The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.
- E. You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 29
What is a core tenant of risk management?
- A. The provider is accountable for all risk management.
- B. Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss of customers.
- C. The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.
- D. You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.
- E. If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are in
place, you must accept the risk.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 30
Containers can be implemented without the use of VMs at all and run directly on hardware.
- A. True
- B. False
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multiple containers can run on the same virtual machine or be implemented without the use of VMs at all and run directly on hardware. The container provides code running inside a restricted environment with only access to the processes and capabilities defined in the container configuration. This allows containers to launch incredibly rapidly. since they don't need to boot an operating system or launch many(sometimes any) new services; the container only needs access to already-running services in the host 0S and some can launch in milliseconds.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4(reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following is NOT one of the common networks underlying in Cloud Infrastructure?
- A. Security Network
- B. Management Network
- C. Service Network
- D. Storage Network
Answer: A
Explanation:
If you are a cloud provider (including managing a private cloud), physical segregation of networks composing your cloud is important for both operational and security reasons. We most commonly see at least three different networks which are isolated onto dedicated hardware since there is no functional or traffic overlap:
1. The service network for communications between virtual machines and the Internet. This builds the network resource pool for the cloud users.
2. The storage network to connect virtual storage to virtual machines.
3. A management network for management and API traffic.
Ref: Reference: CSA Security GuidelinesV.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)
NEW QUESTION # 32
Who is responsible for Governance, Risk & Compliance in Software as a Service(SaaS) service model?
- A. Cloud Customer
- B. It's a shared responsibility between Cloud Service Provider and Cloud Customer
- C. Cloud Carrier
- D. Cloud Service Provider
Answer: A
Explanation:
Remember, GRC will always remain responsibility of the cloud customer in all service models
NEW QUESTION # 33
ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?
- A. ISO 27001 certification
- B. Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure
- C. Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions
- D. More efficient and timely system updates
- E. Lock-In
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?
- A. Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices
- B. Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations
- C. Defining and maintaining the governance plan
- D. Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented
Answer: A
Explanation:
Compliance in cybersecurity involves following internal policies, as well as external regulations, standards, and best practices, to ensure legal and security requirements are met. Reference: [CCSK v5 Curriculum, Domain 3 - Compliance]
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?
- A. Cost efficiency and speed to market
- B. Improved software development methodologies
- C. Enhanced security and compliance
- D. Scalability and redundancy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cloud computing is adopted mainly for its cost-effectiveness and the ability to accelerate time-to-market, enhancing business agility. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 1 - Cloud Benefits]
NEW QUESTION # 36
Cloud architectures necessitate certain roles which are extremely high-risk. Examples of such roles include CP system administrators and auditors and managed security service providers dealing with intrusion detection reports and incident response. They are known as high-risk because their malicious activities can lead to abuse of high privilege roles and can impact confidentiality, integrity and availability of data.
- A. False
- B. True
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 37
One of key focus of ISO 27001 standard is:
- A. Find the data breaches in the organization
- B. Develop ISMS (Information Security management system)
- C. Put security controls in place
- D. Define organizational structure
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 is the best-known standard in the family providing requirements for an information security management system (ISMS).
An ISMS is a systematic approach to managing sensitive company information so that it remains secure.
It includes people, processes and IT systems by applying a risk management process.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?
- A. Information Governance
- B. Data Security and Encryption
- C. Compliance and Audit Management
- D. Infrastructure Security
- E. Incident Response, Notification and Remediation
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is not part of STRIDE model?
- A. Distributed Denial of Service
- B. Elevation of Privilege
- C. Spoofing
- D. Denial of Service
Answer: A
Explanation:
The letters in STRIDE threat model represent Spoofing of identity, Tampering with data, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, and Elevation of privilege. The other options are simply mixed up or incorrect versions of the same.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which one of the following is an example of misuse or abuse of cloud services?
- A. DDoS Attack
- B. XSS attacks
- C. Honeypot
- D. Account Hijacking
Answer: A
Explanation:
Public cloud platform can be used to launch DDoS attack on other platforms.
Please note here and understand the meaning of phrase "abuse or misuse of cloud Services" This phrase means to launch attacks or campaign by using cloud as a platform. mostly. public cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which standard offers guidelines for information security controls applicable to the provision and use of cloud services?
- A. ISO 27018
- B. ISO 27017
- C. ISO 15048
- D. ISO 27034
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO 270017 provides guidance on the information security aspects of cloud computing. recommending and assisting with the implementation of cloud-specific information security controls supplementing the guidance in ISO/IEC 27002 and other ISO 27k standards.
NEW QUESTION # 42
How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?
- A. Just-in-time compilers
- B. No modification is needed
- C. Both B and C
- D. Updated threat and trust models
- E. Integrated development environments
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 43
How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?
- A. It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.
- B. It consolidates logs into a single location.
- C. It automatically resolves all detected security threats.
- D. It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Centralized logging aggregates logs in one location, making it easier to monitor, analyze, and comply with regulatory requirements. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 6 - Security Monitoring]
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which one of the following is the key techniques to create cloud infrastructure?
- A. Orientation
- B. Classification
- C. Authentication
- D. Abstraction
Answer: D
Explanation:
The key techniques to create a cloud are abstraction and orchestration. We abstract the resources from the underlying physical infrastructure to create our pools, and use orchestration (and automation) to coordinate carving out and delivering a set of resources from the pools to the consumers. As you will see, these two techniques create all the essential characteristics we use to define something as a
"cloud."
Ref: CSA Security Guidelines V4.0
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following are key Data functions?
- A. Access, Procure & Store
- B. Access, Process & Save
- C. Access, Procure & Save
- D. Access, Process & Store
Answer: D
Explanation:
The key data functions are Access, process & Store
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following establishes commonly accepted control objectives, controls and guidelines for implementing measures to protect Personally Identifiable Information(PII) in accordance with the privacy principles in IS0/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment?
- A. IS0 27018
- B. IS0 27017
- C. IS0 27032
- D. IS0 27034
Answer: A
Explanation:
IS0/IEC 27018:2014 establishes commonly accepted control objectives, controls and guidelines for implementing measures to protect Personally Identifiable Information(PII) in accordance with the privacy principles in IS0/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment.
NEW QUESTION # 47
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