[2025] ISTQB-CTFL Actual Exam Dumps, ISTQB-CTFL Practice Test
ActualTestsQuiz ISTQB-CTFL dumps & Foundation Level sure practice dumps
NEW QUESTION # 56
You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?
- A. Decision coverage, fault attack.
- B. Exploratory testing, statement coverage.
- C. Decision table testing, state transition testing.
- D. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are test design techniques that are most appropriate for testing the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password, which are input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be used to detect defects caused by incorrect handling of boundary conditions. For example, for testing the user name field, we can identify two equivalence partitions: valid user name (existing and correct) and invalid user name (non-existing or incorrect). The boundary values for these partitions are the minimum and maximum length of user name allowed by the system.
Decision table testing and state transition testing are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions or events. Decision table testing is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions.
Exploratory testing and statement coverage are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that require learning, creativity and intuition or structural analysis. Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Statement coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many statements in a program have been executed by a test suite. Statement coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite.
Decision coverage and fault attack are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have complex logic or potential errors. Decision coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many decision outcomes in a program have been executed by a test suite. Decision coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite. Fault attack is a type of functional testing that deliberately introduces faults into a system in order to provoke failures or errors. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 34-46; Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?
- A. EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.
- B. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.
- C. EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.
- D. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Experience based techniques (EBT) are techniques that use the knowledge, intuition and skills of the test engineers to design and execute tests. EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies, domains, applications or systems. EBT are not based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques, but rather on their personal judgment and creativity. EBT are not done as a second stage of testing, after non-experience-based testing took place, but rather as a complementary or alternative approach to other techniques. EBT require broad and deep knowledge in both testing and the application or technological domain, as this can help the test engineer identify potential risks, scenarios or defects. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 5, page 48-49.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?
- A. Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
- B. Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
- C. Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met
- D. Validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the context of software testing, the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 differentiates between "validation" and "verification" based on their respective focuses in the software development lifecycle. Verification is the process of evaluating a system or component to determine whether the products of a given development phase satisfy the conditions imposed at the start of that phase. In simpler terms, verification is about checking the product against the specified requirements to ensure it was built correctly.
Validation, on the other hand, involves evaluating a system or component during or at the end of the development process to determine whether it meets specified requirements for its intended use. This means validation is about ensuring the product fulfills its intended use and meets the needs of the user.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0: ISTQB Official Website
* ISTQB Foundation Level Resources v4.0: ASTQB Resources
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?
I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.
III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.
IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.
- A. I, II, III
- B. I, III, IV
- C. II, III, IV
- D. III, IV
Answer: B
Explanation:
An exit criterion is a condition that defines when a test activity has been completed or when a test phase can be concluded. An exit criterion can be based on various factors, such as:
* I) Estimates of defect density or reliability measures. These are quantitative measures that indicate how many defects are present in the software product or how likely it is to fail under certain conditions.
These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the software product meets a certain level of quality or performance before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
* III) Accuracy measures, such as code coverage, functionality coverage or risk coverage. These are quantitative measures that indicate how much of the software product has been tested in terms of its code, functionality or risk. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the test suite is adequate or complete before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer.
* IV) Residual risks, such as lack of code coverage in certain areas, unresolved defects or unknown factors. These are qualitative measures that indicate the remaining risks or uncertainties associated with the software product after testing. These can be used as exit criteria to ensure that the residual risks are acceptable or manageable before moving to the next phase or releasing it to the customer. The following factor is not a valid exit criterion:
* II) The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report. This is not a valid exit criterion, as it does not reflect the quality or completeness of the testing process or product. A test report is a document that summarizes the results and outcomes of a test activity or phase. A test report can be used as aninput for deciding whether to exit a test activity or phase, but it is not a condition that defines when to exit.
Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 2, page 13; Chapter 6, page 58-59.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?
- A. Individual preparation
- B. Low cost
- C. Metrics analysis
- D. Kick-off meeting
Answer: B
Explanation:
A key characteristic of informal reviews is low cost. Informal reviews are a type of review that does not follow a formal process or have any formal documentation. Informal reviews are usually performed by individuals or small groups of peers or colleagues who have some knowledge or interest in the product under review.
Informal reviews can be done at any time and for any purpose, such as checking for errors, clarifying doubts, sharing ideas, etc. Informal reviews have low cost, as they do not require much time, effort, or resources to conduct. The other options are not key characteristics of informal reviews. Kick-off meeting is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Kick-off meeting is a meeting that is held before the review process starts, where the roles and responsibilities of the participants are defined, the objectives and scope of the review are agreed, and the logistics and schedule of the review are planned. Individual preparation is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Individual preparation is an activity that is performed by the reviewers before the review meeting, where they examine the product under review and identify any issues or questions that need to be discussed or resolved during the review meeting. Metrics analysis is a characteristic of formal reviews, such as inspections or walkthroughs. Metrics analysis is an activity that is performed after the review process is completed, where the data and results of the review are collected and analyzed to measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the review, as well as to identify any improvement actions or lessons learned forfuture reviews. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 61
Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?
- A. Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items
- B. Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects
- C. Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program
- D. Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents
Answer: C
Explanation:
A dynamic analysis tool is a tool that performs analysis of a software product based on its behavior during execution. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor various aspects of a program's run-time performance, such as memory usage, CPU load, response time, or resource leaks. A dynamic analysis tool can monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program, which can help detect defects such as memory leaks, buffer overflows, or memory corruption. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents, as this is a function of a test management tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects, as this is a function of a debugging tool. A dynamic analysis tool cannot provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items, as this is a function of a configuration management tool. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 6, page 56-57.
NEW QUESTION # 62
Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?
- A. When it is cheap to buy test automation tools
- B. When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks
- C. When it is easy to automate
- D. When a new test automation tool is launched
Answer: B
Explanation:
A correct reason to apply test automation is when there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks. Test automation is the use of software tools or scripts to perform or support testing activities, such as test case execution, test result comparison, test data generation, etc. Test automation can be beneficial when there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks that need to be performed frequently or consistently, such as regression testing, performance testing, load testing, etc. Test automation can help to save time and effort, increase reliability and accuracy, and improve coverage and efficiency of testing. The other options are not correct reasons to apply test automation. When a new test automation tool is launched is not a reason to apply test automation, but rather a factor for choosing a test automation tool. When it is easy to automate is not a reason to apply test automation, but rather a factor for evaluating the feasibility of test automation. When it is cheap to buy test automation tools is not a reason to apply test automation, but rather a factor for estimating the cost and benefit of test automation. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 10.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Why is it important to select a test technique?
- A. Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule.
- B. The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.
- C. There are usually loo many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the number of tests.
- D. Selecting the right test technique in a given situation Increases the effectiveness of the test process Oy creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Selecting the right test technique is crucial because different techniques are suited to different types of testing and can significantly increase the effectiveness of the testing process by creating tests that are more likely to find defects. While reducing the number of tests (A) and defining the number of regression cycles (D) are considerations in the testing process, they are not the primary reasons for selecting a test technique. The assertion that the only way to test a software application is by using well-proven test techniques (B) is too restrictive and does not acknowledge the adaptability required in testing to suit different contexts and objectives. Therefore, option C is the most comprehensive reason, as it focuses on the effectiveness and efficiency of testing, leading to the creation of high-quality tests that have a higher chance of finding bugs.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Consider the following list of possible benefits of retrospectives (A to D):
- A. A4 - B3 - C2 - D1
- B. Team bonding and learning
- C. A3 - B2 - C1 - D4
- D. A1 - B4 - C3 - D2
- E. Improved quality of the test basis
- F. Better cooperation between development and testing
... and the list of possible characteristics of retrospectives (1 to 4) that enable achieving these benefits:
The possibility of implementing suggestions for process improvement
The opportunity to raise problems and propose points for improvement
The regular review and optimization of the collaboration between team members The possibility of addressing and solving deficiencies in the extent and quality of the requirements Which ONE of the following options presents the BEST mapping between benefits and characteristics from retrospectives? - G. Increased test effectiveness/efficiency
- H. A2 - B1 - C4 - D3
Answer: G
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Retrospectives provide value by fostering improvement and collaboration. The correct mapping is:
* A2: Team bonding occurs when teams openly discuss issues.
* B1: Test effectiveness increases when process improvements are implemented.
* C4: Test basis improves by addressing requirement deficiencies.
* D3: Cooperation improves through regular review of collaboration.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?
- A. Document incidents on a large board in the lab
- B. Purchase and deploy an incident management tool
- C. Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet
- D. Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident management tool is a software tool that supports recording and tracking incidents throughout their life cycle. A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. The best option for this case is to manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet. This option has several advantages over other options:
* It is low cost, as it does not require purchasing any additional software or hardware.
* It is easy to implement within a week, as it does not require installing or configuring any complex software or hardware.
* It is accessible and transparent, as it can be viewed and updated by anyone who has access to the intranet.
* It is structured and organized, as it can store and display various information about incidents, such as identifier, summary, description, severity, priority, status, resolution, etc. The other options are not suitable for this case, as they have several disadvantages over the chosen option:
* Documenting incidents on a large board in the lab is not a good option, as it is not accessible or transparent to anyone who is not physically present in the lab. It is also not structured or organized, as it may not store or display all the necessary information about incidents.
* Purchasing and deploying an incident management tool is not a good option, as it is not low cost or easy to implement within a week. It may require spending a significant amount of money and time on acquiring, installing and configuring the software or hardware.
* Managing the incidents through emails and phone calls is not a good option, as it is not structured or organized. It may lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information about incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page
32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?
- A. Test schedules
- B. Confidence of testers in tested code
- C. Number of unfixed defects
- D. Cost of testing performed so far
Answer: A
Explanation:
Test exit criteria are the conditions or requirements that must be met before testing can be concluded. Test exit criteria are usually defined in the test plan and agreed by the stakeholders. Test exit criteria can be based on various factors, such as test coverage, defect status, quality level, risk level, etc. Test schedules would be the least likely to be used as the basis for test exit criteria, because test schedules are not directly related to the quality or performance of the software product, but rather to the time or resources allocated for testing. Test schedules can be used as the basis for test entry criteria, which are the conditions or requirements that must be met before testing can start. The other options are more likely to be used as the basis for test exit criteria. Cost of testing performed so far can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can indicate the return on investment or the cost-benefit ratio of testing. Confidence of testers in tested code can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can reflect the level of satisfaction or assurance of the testers about the quality or reliability of the software product. Number of unfixed defects can be used as a basis for test exit criteria, because it can indicate the level of risk or impact of the remaining defects on the software product. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 13.
NEW QUESTION # 67
In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?
- A. Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers
- B. Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.
- C. There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.
- D. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item
Answer: D
Explanation:
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management affects testing in various ways, such as:
Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item, which can help traceability, reproducibility and accountability.
Proper configuration management ensures that testers have access to consistent versions of software components and testware, which can help reliability, compatibility and efficiency.
Proper configuration management ensures that testers can track changes and defects in software components and testware, which can help verification, validation and reporting.
Proper configuration management ensures that testers can control the configuration of the test environment, which can help stability, security and performance. Configuration management is not a prerequisite for test planning, as test planning can proceed without configuration management, although it may be less effective or accurate. Configuration management is not important for developers only, but for testers as well, as it affects the quality and consistency of the testing process and products. Configuration management has a significant influence on the test project, as it affects various aspects of testing, such as traceability, reproducibility, reliability, compatibility, efficiency, verification, validation, reporting, stability, security and performance. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 60-61.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?
- A. Functional Testing
- B. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it
- C. Coverage analysis
- D. Code inspection
Answer: A
Explanation:
Functional testing is an example of black-box dynamic testing. Black-box testing (also known as specification-based testing) is a type of testing that does not consider the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, but rather its external behavior or functionality. Dynamic testing is a type of testing that involves executing the system under test with various inputs and observing its outputs. Functional testing is a type of black-box dynamic testing that verifies that the system under test performs its intended functions according to its requirements or specifications. Functional testing can be performed at various levels and scopes depending on the objectives and criteria of testing. The other options are not examples of black-box dynamic testing. Code inspection is an example of white-box static testing. White-box testing (also known as structure-based testing) is a type of testing that considers the internal structure or implementation of the system under test. Static testing is a type of testing that does not involve executing the system under test, but rather analyzing it for defects, errors, or violations of standards. Code inspection is a type of white-box static testing that involves examining the source code of the system under test for quality, readability, maintainability, etc. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it is an example of white-box dynamic testing. Memory leaks are defects that occur when a program fails to release memory that it has allocated but no longer needs. Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the program, such as memory allocation and deallocation mechanisms, pointers, references, etc. Coverage analysis is an example of white-box static testing. Coverage analysis is a technique that measures how much of the code or structure of the system under test has been exercised by a test suite. Coverage analysis requires knowledge and access to the internal structure or implementation of the system under test, such as statements, branches, paths, conditions, etc. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 7.
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which of the following statements about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products is not true?
- A. Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing
- B. Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests
- C. Traceability can be useful for determining the most suitable test techniques to be used in a testing project
- D. Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traceability is the ability to trace the relationships between the items of the test basis, such as the requirements, the design, the risks, etc., and the test artifacts, such as the test cases, the test results, the defects, etc. Traceability can provide various benefits for the testing process, such as improving the test coverage, the test quality, the test efficiency, and the test communication. However, not all the statements given are true about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products. The statement that is not true is option C, which says that test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly. This statement is false, because test objectives are the goals or the purposes of testing, which can vary depending on the test level, the test type, the test technique, the test environment, the test stakeholder, etc. Test objectives can be defined in terms of the test basis, the test coverage, the test quality, the test risk, the test cost, the test time, etc. Test objectives should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound, and they should be aligned with the project objectives and the quality characteristics. Test objectives should not be the same for all test levels, as different test levels have different focuses, scopes, and perspectives of testing, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. The other statements are true about the value of maintaining traceability between the test basis and test work products, such as:
* Traceability can be useful for assessing the impact of a change to a test basis item on the corresponding tests: This statement is true, because traceability can help to identify which tests are affected by a change in the test basis, such as a new requirement, a modified design, a revised risk, etc., and to determine the necessary actions to update, re-execute, or re-evaluate the tests. Traceability can also help to estimate the effort, the cost, and the time needed to implement the change and to verify its impact on the software system.
* Traceability can be useful for determining how many test basis items are covered by the corresponding tests: This statement is true, because traceability can help to measure the test coverage, which is the degree to which the test basis is exercised by the test cases. Traceability can help to identify which test basis items are covered, partially covered, or not covered by the tests, and to evaluate the adequacy, the completeness, and the effectiveness of the testing process. Traceability can also help to identify the gaps, the overlaps, or the redundancies in the test coverage, and to prioritize, optimize, or improve the test cases.
* Traceability can be useful to support the needs required by the auditing of testing: This statement is true, because traceability can help to provide evidence, documentation, and justification for the testing activities, results, and outcomes. Traceability can help to demonstrate that the testing process follows the standards, the regulations, the policies, and the best practices that are applicable to the software system, the project, or the organization. Traceability can also help to verify that the testing process meets the expectations, the needs, and the satisfaction of the users and the stakeholders. References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and Test Approaches1
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1
* ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1
* ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Traceability, Test Basis, Test Artifact, Test Objective, Test Level, Test Coverage, Test Quality, Test Risk, Test Cost, Test Time2
NEW QUESTION # 70
An Incident Management tool implements the following defect states; Open, Assigned, Solved, Closed Consider the following defect report:
Id T000561
Test Object "Warehouse Management' application
Tester name; John Bishop
Date: 10th. April 2010
Test Case MRT558I
Status OPEN
Severity Serious
Priority
Problem- After inputting the Total Quantity item = 450 in the SV034 screen, the system shows an unexpected Error message=47 Correction:
Developer name:
Closing date:
Which of the following is a valid criticism of this report?
- A. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem
- B. The version of the application is missing
- C. The Priority, the Correction description and the Developer name are missing
- D. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability)
Answer: B
Explanation:
A valid criticism of this report is that the version of the application is missing. The version of the application is an important piece of information that should be included in a defect report, as it helps to identify which release or build of the software product contains the defect. The version of the application can also help to reproduce and debug the defect, as different versions may have different behaviors or features. The other options are not valid criticisms of this report. The priority, the correction description and the developer name are not missing, but rather not applicable for this report. The priority is a measure of how urgently a defect needs to be fixed, which can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The correction description and the developer name are information that are added after the defect has been resolved, not when it has been reported. There is no link to the applicable requirement (traceability) is not a valid criticism of this report, because traceability is not a mandatory attribute of a defect report, but rather an optional one.Traceability is a relationship between two or more entities (such as requirements, test cases, defects, etc.) that shows how they are related or dependent on each other. Traceability can help to verify that the requirements are met by the test cases and defects, but it is not essential for reporting a defect. The description is not highlighting the source of the problem is not a valid criticism of this report, because highlighting the source of the problem is not a responsibility of the tester who reports the defect, but rather of the developer who fixes the defect. The description should provide enough information to describe what happened when the defect occurred, such as input values, expected results, actual results, error messages, screenshots, etc., but it does not need to explain why or how it happened. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.
NEW QUESTION # 71
A requirement specifies that a certain identifier (ID) must be between 5 and 10 characters long, must contain only alphanumenc characters, and its first character must be a letter As a tester, you want to apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to test this ID. This means that you have to apply equivalence partitioning individually: to the length of the ID, the type of characters contained within the ID, and the type of the first character of the ID. What is the number of partitions to cover?
- A. 3.
- B. 6.
- C. 7.
- D. 5.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To apply one-dimensional equivalence partitioning to the ID requirement, we need to consider each condition individually:
* Length of the ID: Valid partitions (5-10 characters), Invalid partitions (less than 5, more than 10) = 3 partitions.
* Type of characters: Valid partitions (alphanumeric), Invalid partitions (non-alphanumeric) = 2 partitions.
* First character: Valid partitions (letter), Invalid partitions (non-letter) = 2 partitions. Adding these partitions, we get a total of 3 (length) + 2 (character type) + 2 (first character) = 7 partitions. Thus, the correct answer is A.
NEW QUESTION # 72
Given the following statements:
1.It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification
2.It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle
3.It can detect the failures in the running application
4.It can help eliminate defects in user stories
5.It can verify externally visible behaviors
Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?
- A. 1,2, 3. 4,5
- B. 2,4,5
- C. 1,2,4
- D. 1,3, 4.5
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static testing involves reviewing and inspecting the code, requirements, or design documents without executing the code. It can prevent defects, is effective early in the software development life cycle, and can help eliminate defects in user stories.
Option 1: "It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification" - This is a value of static testing.
Option 2: "It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle" - This is a value of static testing.
Option 3: "It can detect the failures in the running application" - This is a v (ISTQB not-for-profit association)namic testing, not static testing.
Option 4: "It can help eliminate defects in user stories" - This is a value of static testing.
Option 5: "It can verify externally visible behaviors" - This is a value of dynamic testing, not static testing.
Therefore, the correct set of statements representing values only for static testing is 1, 2, 4, which corresponds to answer C6†source.
References:
* Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0
* ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 4.0 (2023)
NEW QUESTION # 73
Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?
I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.
II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.
III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.
IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.
- A. II. Ill
- B. II. IV
- C. I, IV
- D. I. Ill
Answer: A
Explanation:
A decision table is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). The following statements about decision tables are true:
* II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests. Decision tables can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. Decision tables can help cover all possible combinations or scenarios in a systematic way.
* III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table. A column of a decision table represents a unique combination of condition entries and action entries. Several test cases can be selected for each column by varying other input values or expected results that are not part of the decision table. The following statements about decision tables are false:
* I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items. Decision tables are not related to risk level, but rather to complexity level. Decision tables are generated for test items that have complex logic or multiple conditions and actions that need to be tested.
* IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally. The conditions in the decision table represent both positive and negative tests, depending on whether they are valid or invalid inputs for the test item. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 4, page 42-43.
NEW QUESTION # 74
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?
- A. -100; 100:1000; 1001
- B. -500; 0; 100; 1000
- C. -1000; -100; 100; 1000
- D. -99; 99:101; 1001
Answer: C
Explanation:
* The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning.
Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
* (x \leq -100)
* (-100 < x < 100)
* (100 \leq x < 1000)
* (x \geq 1000)
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
* For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.
* For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.
* For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.
* For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents available at ISTQB and ASTQB.
* 1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
* 2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
* : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40
NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?
- A. Test data preparation tool
- B. Fault seeding tool.
- C. Containerisation tool
- D. Static analysis tool.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A static analysis tool is best suited for determining source code compliance with coding standards. These tools analyze the code without executing it and can check for adherence to coding standards, syntax errors, and other static properties of the code. The ISTQB CTFL syllabus emphasizes the role of static analysis tools in verifying that code meets predefined standards and guidelines.
References: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, Section on static testing and tools.
NEW QUESTION # 76
The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:
1. Component (unit) testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality
- B. It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test
- C. It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model
- D. It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The V-model is a software development life cycle model that defines four test levels that correspond to four development phases: component (unit) testing with component design, integration testing with architectural design, system testing with system requirements, and acceptance testing with user requirements. The V-model emphasizes the importance of verifying and validating each phase of development with a corresponding level of testing, and ensuring that the test objectives, test basis, and test artifacts are aligned and consistent across the test levels. Therefore, an organization that wants to follow the V-model cannot do away with integration testing, as it would break the symmetry and completeness of the V-model, and compromise the quality and reliability of the software or system under test. Integration testing is a test level that aims to test the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and to detect any defects or inconsistencies that may arise from the integration of different parts of the software or system. Integration testing is essential for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole, and for identifying and resolving any integration issues early in the development process. Skipping integration testing would increase the risk of finding serious defects later in the test process, or worse, in the production environment, which would be more costly and difficult to fix, and could damage the reputation and credibility of the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
The other options are incorrect because:
A) It is not allowed as organizations can decide on the test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test. While it is true that the choice and scope of test levels may vary depending on the context of the system under test, such as the size, complexity, criticality, and risk level of the system, the organization cannot simply ignore or skip a test level that is defined and required by the chosen software development life cycle model. The organization must follow the principles and guidelines of the software development life cycle model, and ensure that the test levels are consistent and coherent with the development phases. If the organization wants to have more flexibility and adaptability in choosing the test levels, it should consider using a different software development life cycle model, such as an agile or iterative model, that allows for more dynamic and incremental testing approaches.
B) It is not allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with. This statement is false and misleading, as integration testing is a very important test level that cannot be dispensed with. Integration testing is vital for testing the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole. Integration testing can reveal defects or inconsistencies that may not be detected by component (unit) testing alone, such as interface errors, data flow errors, integration logic errors, or performance degradation. Integration testing can also help to verify and validate the architectural design and the integration strategy of the software or system, and to ensure that the software or system meets the specified and expected quality attributes, such as reliability, usability, security, and maintainability. Integration testing can also provide feedback and confidence to the developers and stakeholders about the progress and quality of the software or system development. Therefore, integration testing is a crucial and indispensable test level that should not be skipped or omitted.
C) It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite poor product quality. This statement is partially true, as integration testing is a very important test level that should not be ignored, and skipping it could result in poor product quality. However, this statement is too strong and absolute, as it implies that integration testing is the only factor that determines the product quality, and that ignoring it would guarantee a poor product quality. This is not necessarily the case, as there may be other factors that affect the product quality, such as the quality of the requirements, design, code, and other test levels, the effectiveness and efficiency of the test techniques and tools, the competence and experience of the developers and testers, the availability and adequacy of the resources and environment, the management and communication of the project, and the expectations and satisfaction of the customers and users. Therefore, while integration testing is a very important test level that should not be skipped, it is not the only test level that matters, and skipping it does not necessarily mean definite poor product quality, but rather a higher risk and likelihood of poor product quality.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.3, pages 16-18; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 38-39; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 104, page 36.
NEW QUESTION # 77
During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?
- A. Send an email to the developer and not report the bug
- B. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem
- C. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
- D. Report the incident as is without any further action
Answer: C
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This can help confirm that the incident is reproducible and not caused by a random or external factor. This can also help gather more information about the incident, such as the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, the severity and priority of the incident, or any screenshots or logs that can illustrate the incident. Trying to identify the code fragment causing the problem is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is a debugging activity that is usually performed by developers after receiving the incident report. Sending an email to the developer and not reporting the bug is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is an informal and unstructured way of communicating incidents that can lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information. Reporting the incident as is without any further action is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this can result in incomplete or inaccurate incident reports that can hamper the investigation and resolution of incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB® Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-
33.
NEW QUESTION # 78
A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?
- A. The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.
- B. The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.
- C. The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.
- D. The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test. It includes activities such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and analysis of documents, code, and models. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, before they become more expensive and difficult to fix in later stages. Static testing can also improve the quality of the software or system by preventing defects from being introduced in the first place. Static testing can complement dynamic testing, which involves executing the software or system under test and checking the results against expected outcomes. Dynamic testing can find defects that static testing may miss, such as performance, usability, or integration issues. However, dynamic testing alone is not sufficient to ensure quality, as it may not cover all possible scenarios, inputs, or paths. Therefore, a test manager who decides to skip static testing is making a wrong decision, as he or she is ignoring the benefits of static testing and relying solely on dynamic testing, which may not be effective or efficient enough to find and prevent defects. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.1.1, page 14; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, page 36; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 3, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 79
......
ISTQB-CTFL Actual Questions and Braindumps: https://www.actualtestsquiz.com/ISTQB-CTFL-test-torrent.html
Pass ISTQB-CTFL Exam with Updated ISTQB-CTFL Exam Dumps PDF 2025: https://drive.google.com/open?id=161Ind6xTpDZkDG8AbMNoKA25u4Xzl2dv
