Current SY0-701 Exam Dumps [2025] Complete CompTIA Exam Smoothly
SY0-701 Premium PDF & Test Engine Files with 645 Questions & Answers
CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 170
A company is implementing a vendor's security tool in the cloud. The security director does not want to manage users and passwords specific to this tool but would rather utilize the company's standard user directory. Which of the following should the company implement?
- A. SAML
- B. CHAP
- C. 802.1X
- D. RADIUS
Answer: A
Explanation:
The company should implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to integrate the vendor's security tool with their existing user directory. SAML is an open standard that allows identity providers (IdP) to pass authorization credentials to service providers (SP), enabling Single Sign-On (SSO). This allows the company to use its existing directory services for authentication, avoiding the need to manage a separate set of user credentials for the new tool.
NEW QUESTION # 171
Which of the following documents details how to accomplish a technical security task?
- A. Guideline
- B. Policy
- C. Standard
- D. Procedure
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 172
A user, who is waiting for a flight at an airport, logs in to the airline website using the public Wi-Fi, ignores a security warning and purchases an upgraded seat. When the flight lands, the user finds unauthorized credit card charges. Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?
- A. Replay attack
- B. On-path attack
- C. Memory leak
- D. Buffer overflow attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
An on-path attack, also known as a man-in-the-middle (MITM) attack, occurs when an attacker intercepts the communication between two parties (in this case, the user and the airline's website). Since the user was on a public Wi-Fi network and ignored security warnings, it's possible that the attacker was able to intercept the credit card information during the transaction, leading to unauthorized charges.
NEW QUESTION # 173
Various company stakeholders meet to discuss roles and responsibilities in the event of a security breach affecting offshore offices. Which of the following is this an example of?
- A. Penetration test
- B. Geographic dispersion
- C. Tabletop exercise
- D. Incident response
Answer: C
Explanation:
Detailed Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based activity where stakeholders simulate a security breach scenario to identify gaps in response plans and clarify roles and responsibilities. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-
701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Incident Response Planning and Exercises".
NEW QUESTION # 174
A company is expanding its threat surface program and allowing individuals to security test the company's internet-facing application. The company will compensate researchers based on the vulnerabilities discovered. Which of the following best describes the program the company is setting up?
- A. Bug bounty
- B. Open-source intelligence
- C. Penetration testing
- D. Red team
Answer: A
Explanation:
A bug bounty is a program that rewards security researchers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an application or system. Bug bounties are often used by companies to improve their security posture and incentivize ethical hacking. A bug bounty program typically defines the scope, rules, and compensation for the researchers.
NEW QUESTION # 175
Which of the following is a type of vulnerability that involves inserting scripts into web-based applications in order to take control of the client's web browser?
- A. On-path attack
- B. SQL injection
- C. Cross-site scripting
- D. Zero-day exploit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities allow attackers to inject malicious scripts into a website, which are then executed in the user's web browser, potentially leading to data theft or session hijacking.References:
Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.
NEW QUESTION # 176
An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location. Which of the following is the VPN protecting?
- A. Data in transit
- B. Data in use
- C. Data sovereignty
- D. Geographic restrictions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.
NEW QUESTION # 177
Which of the following describes the reason root cause analysis should be conducted as part of incident response?
- A. To discover which systems have been affected
- B. To gather loCs for the investigation
- C. To prevent future incidents of the same nature
- D. To eradicate any trace of malware on the network
Answer: C
Explanation:
Root cause analysis is a process of identifying and resolving the underlying factors that led to an incident. By conducting root cause analysis as part of incident response, security professionals can learn from the incident and implement corrective actions to prevent future incidents of the same nature. For example, if the root cause of a data breach was a weak password policy, the security team can enforce a stronger password policy and educate users on the importance of password security. Root cause analysis can also help to improve security processes, policies, and procedures, and to enhance security awareness and culture within the organization. Root cause analysis is not meant to gather loCs (indicators of compromise) for the investigation, as this is a task performed during the identification and analysis phases of incident response. Root cause analysis is also not meant to discover which systems have been affected or to eradicate any trace of malware on the network, as these are tasks performed during the containment and eradication phases of incident response. Reference = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 424-425; Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.1 - Incident Response, 9:55 - 11:18.
NEW QUESTION # 178
A company is expanding its threat surface program and allowing individuals to security test the company's internet-facing application. The company will compensate researchers based on the vulnerabilities discovered.
Which of the following best describes the program the company is setting up?
- A. Bug bounty
- B. Open-source intelligence
- C. Penetration testing
- D. Red team
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A bug bounty is a program that rewards security researchers for finding and reporting vulnerabilities in an application or system. Bug bounties are often used by companies to improve their security posture and incentivize ethical hacking. A bug bounty program typically defines the scope, rules, and compensation for the researchers. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 10. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2.
NEW QUESTION # 179
Which of the following best describes a use case for a DNS sinkhole?
- A. Attackers can see a DNS sinkhole as a highly valuable resource to identify a company's domain structure.
- B. A DNS sinkhole can be set up to attract potential attackers away from a company's network resources.
- C. A DNS sinkhole can be used to capture traffic to known-malicious domains used by attackers.
- D. A DNS sinkhole can be used to draw employees away from known-good websites to malicious ones owned by the attacker.
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS sinkhole intercepts attempts to visit harmful websites and redirects them so you don't end up reaching a malicious website and keeps your computer safe.
NEW QUESTION # 180
A security administrator recently reset local passwords and the following values were recorded in the system:
Which of the following in the security administrator most likely protecting against?
- A. Account sharing
- B. Weak password complexity
- C. Pass-the-hash attacks
- D. Password compromise
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.
References =
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.
NEW QUESTION # 181
A multinational bank hosts several servers in its data center. These servers run a business-critical application used by customers to access their account information. Which of the following should the bank use to ensure accessibility during peak usage times?
- A. Geographic dispersal
- B. Cloud backups
- C. Load balancer
- D. Disk multipathing
Answer: C
Explanation:
A load balancer is the most appropriate solution to ensure accessibility of a business-critical application during peak usage times. It distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, optimizing resource utilization, maximizing throughput, minimizing response time, and avoiding overload on any single server. This is particularly crucial for a multinational bank's customer-facing application during high-traffic periods.
NEW QUESTION # 182
A company is considering an expansion of access controls for an application that contractors and internal employees use to reduce costs. Which of the following risk elements should the implementation team understand before granting access to the application?
- A. Register
- B. Threshold
- C. Tolerance
- D. Appetite
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 183
A security administrator recently reset local passwords and the following values were recorded in the system:
Which of the following in the security administrator most likely protecting against?
- A. Account sharing
- B. Weak password complexity
- C. Pass-the-hash attacks
- D. Password compromise
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.
References =
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.
NEW QUESTION # 184
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION # 185
A SOC analyst establishes a remote control session on an end user's machine and discovers the following in a file:
gmail.com[ENT][email protected][ENT]NoOneCanGuessThis123! [ENT]Hello Susan, it was great to see you the other day! Let's plan a followup[BACKSPACE]follow-up meeting soon. Here is the link to register. [RTN][CTRL]c [CTRL]v [RTN]after[BACKSPACE]After you register give me a call on my cellphone.
Which of the following actions should the SOC analyst perform first?
- A. Reimage the end user's machine.
- B. Check host firewall logs.
- C. Check the policy on personal email at work.
- D. Advise the user to change passwords.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 186
At the start of a penetration test, the tester checks OSINT resources for information about the client environment. Which of the following types of reconnaissance is the tester performing?
- A. Active
- B. Defensive
- C. Offensive
- D. Passive
Answer: D
Explanation:
Passive reconnaissance involves gathering publicly available information about a target without directly interacting with the target systems. Checking OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) sources is a typical passive technique used to collect data without alerting the target.
Active reconnaissance (A) involves direct interaction with the target. Offensive (C) and defensive (D) refer to broader security postures and are not specific reconnaissance types.
Passive reconnaissance is a foundational step in penetration testing and covered in the Threats and Vulnerabilities domain of SY0-701#6:Chapter 2 CompTIA Security+ Study Guide#
NEW QUESTION # 187
A business received a small grant to migrate its infrastructure to an off-premises solution. Which of the following should be considered first?
- A. Security of architecture
- B. Security of cloud providers
- C. Cost of implementation
- D. Ability of engineers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following is a reason environmental variables are a concern when reviewing potential system vulnerabilities?
- A. Environmental variables define cryptographic standards for the system and could create vulnerabilities if deprecated algorithms are used.
- B. In-memory environmental variable values can be overwritten and used by attackers to insert malicious code.
- C. Environmental variables will determine when updates are run and could mitigate the likelihood of vulnerability exploitation.
- D. The contents of environmental variables could affect the scope and impact of an exploited vulnerability.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Environmental variables store configuration settings, paths, and other system-related information that applications and processes use. If an attacker gains access to these variables, they could manipulate them to alter application behavior, gain unauthorized access, or escalate privileges.For example, an attacker could modify the PATH variable to execute malicious programs instead of legitimate ones. This can significantly increase the scope and impact of an exploited vulnerability, making it a major security concern.
NEW QUESTION # 189
A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
- A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
- B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
- C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
- D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
Answer: B
Explanation:
A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page
382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1
NEW QUESTION # 190
A security administrator receives multiple reports about the same suspicious email. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the malicious email's continued delivery?
- A. Employees are forwarding personal emails to company email addresses.
- B. Employees are flagging legitimate emails as spam.
- C. Employees are using shadow IT solutions for email.
- D. Information from reported emails is not being used to tune email filtering tools.
Answer: D
Explanation:
If email filtering tools are not tuned based on reported emails, malicious emails will continue to bypass filters. Effective filtering depends on feedback and updating rules with real threat data.
Flagging legitimate emails (A) would cause false positives, shadow IT (C) and forwarding personal emails (D) are less relevant to the filtering bypass.
Tuning email filters is part of continuous Security Operations processes#6:Chapter 14 CompTIA Security+ Study Guide#.
NEW QUESTION # 191
A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following should the analyst do?
- A. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
- B. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
- C. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
- D. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user's awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user's knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user's skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Endpoint Detection and Response - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2, video at 5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.
NEW QUESTION # 192
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